I grew up in a (Protestant) 'christian' sect, in Hammond, Indiana USA 46323 even being a deacon; but I realized that 'something was not right' for there then. It seemed other 'denominations' were incorrect too. Finally, I studied on my own. At one point I did go thru most of Catholic RCIA class, but saw deviations from God's word there too. To date I see 9 (big picture)potential deviations from God's word (available presently upon an email request to me from me).
Christians; Matt. 18:16,2 Cor. 13:1; Jews Deut. 10-19 about 3 times; Muslims in the Koran.1 AnswerReligion & Spirituality7 years ago
I thought I had a idea by I heard something different recently. (The scriptures often give 'when' by wheat and barley harvest).
Past (and present) practice I tend to look things up in a Strong's concordance; but it also seems to have Protestant limitations. So I want to know what those 2 proper nouns mean (not just random 'names')?
What issue(s) do the Jews have with the translation of the KJV 'Bible' (Gen.-Mal.)? (Exclude. Hebrew-Englis?
This morning I was looking up a term and could see a (1) reason for having 'issues' with the translation (politicsed?). What other issues are there?
I currently know of the Vulgate (from Latin) and the Septuigint, and I realize some terms (typically names) are of foreign origin; but I want it from Hebrew.8 AnswersReligion & Spirituality1 decade ago
I know where the 'flaws' are in the Christian religious system. I want to unify the denominations of Christianity in this country (USA) and world wide. Example; the scriptural old testament is the law of Moses; not Genesis-Malachi. How do I get others to see that (the sooner the better in my present opinion)?8 AnswersSenior Citizens1 decade ago
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Want to reduce division in Christianity currently? Is the scriptural old testament the law of Moses; or Genesi
I.E, Genesis is not part of God’s ‘old testament’. 2 Corinthians 3:14-15 (scripture) refers to law given by Moses as the ’old testament’ (KJV, or ‘old covenant’ in many other English translations).
Before Moses; Jesus Matthew 19:7-9. Again he references Moses, not Adam (the first man described in Genesis). (I could easily add as a second witness here, God the Father, Matt. 17:5).
After Moses; Joshua (Joshua 8:31)
David (2 Kings 2:3)
Daniel (Daniel 9:11-13)
Nehemiah, (Nehemiah 8:1)
Malachi (Malachi 4:4)
Paul (2 Cor. 3:13-14) and others etc.
Can the law of Moses exist, before Moses is born?
Does not the 2 or more witnesses principle basically provide freedom when applied?
Would this potential change in thinking (repentance?) help reduce differences with atheists and agnostics also?2 AnswersReligion & Spirituality1 decade ago