People use the "inverse" term to refer to the "reverse" of functions.
First, using this definition would not “inverse of x” actually mean x?
Second, if that’s true, are people being intellectually “lazy” when they say "the inverse of x" when they actually mean the "reciprocal” of x?
Thirdly, if that’s also true, then should we also not be saying “the inverse squared law” because that actually means x^(1/2)?
I would greatly appreciate clarification and possible affirmation on this issue.
Thanks in advance.