Why is Isaiah 53 not included the weekly Parasha?
Isaiah 53 is not included in the weekly Torah/prophet readings...it appears it is referring to a person to me, however some say it is the entire house of Ysrael that is the suffering servant mentioned here. Are the Rabbi's trying to cover up Messianic prophecy on purpose?
okay,okay....but I wonder how this prophecy can apply to an entire nation when it literally refers to "He" and "Him."
Also,Verse 10 says "When you make His soul an offering for sin"..as if in the future. So how are we to interpret that?
Is the coming messiah going to atone for our sins? I thought Messiah would be king and ruler.
- robbLv 61 decade agoBest answer
From what I understand the practice of the weekly reading from the prophets began during a time when Torah study was prohibited. As such, the Haftarah readings were selected to reflect something about the actual Torah reading, not in an attempt to actually read all of the prophets. For example the Torah reading for the first day of Rosh HaShanah is Gen. 21 which is about the birth of Isaac. The Haftarah reading that corresponds with this is 1 Samuel 1:1- 2:10 which is about the birth of Samuel. Both women were barren and the births are both considered to be "miracles". It is also believed that both Isaac and Samuel were born on Rosh HaShanah. Similarly, the Haftarah for Bereishis begins in Isaiah 42:5 which reads "So said the G-d, HaShem, who creates the heavens and the earth, and what grows from it, gives a soul to the people upon it, and a spirit to those who walk in it."......................
- kismetLv 71 decade ago
The weekly Torah portions cover the five books of the Torah: Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, and Deuteronomy.
The rabbis are not trying to cover up anything: In Judaism, EVERYONE is encouraged to study the scriptures, and it has always been that way.
Before engaging in an examination of Isaiah 53 itself, some preliminary issues must be considered. First is the issue of circular reasoning. Even if we interpret the chapter as the Christians do (forgetting for a minute the mistranslations and distortions of context which will be noted below), the most that could be said is this: Isaiah 53 is about someone who dies for the sins of others. People may have seen Jesus die, but did anyone see him die as an atonement for the sins of others? Of course not; this is simply the meaning which the New Testament gives to his death. Only if you already accept the New Testament teaching that his death had a non-visible, spiritual significance can you than go back to Isaiah and say, "see - the Prophet predicted what I already believe." Isaiah 53, then, is in reality no "proof" at all, but rather a contrived confirmation for someone who has already chosen Christianity.
Second (and consistent with all Jewish teaching at the time), Jesus' own disciples didn't view Isaiah 53 as a messianic prophecy. For example, after Peter identifies Jesus as the Messiah (Matt. 16:16), he is informed that Jesus will be killed (Matt. 16:21). His response: "God forbid it, lord! This shall never happen to you" (Matt. 16:22). See, also, Mk. 9:31-32; Mk. 16:10-11; Jn. 20:9. Even Jesus didn't see Isaiah 53 as crucial to his messianic claims - why else did he call the Jews children of the devil for not believing in him before the alleged resurrection (Jn. 8:39-47)? And why did he later request that God "remove this cup from me" (Mk. 14:36) - didn't he know that a "removal of the cup" would violate the gentile understanding of Isaiah 53?
And third, even if we accept the gentile Christian interpretation of Isaiah 53, where is it indicated (either in Isaiah 53 or anywhere else in our Jewish Scriptures) that you must believe in this "Messiah" to get the benefits?
For more info:
- JasmineLv 44 years ago
Thinking Isaiah 53 refers to Jesus is a common mistake. Chapters 40-55 of Isaiah were written by Second Isaiah i.e. after southern kingdom was destroyed in 586 BCE and the surviving Israelites had been taken into captivity. Like all the prophets, he was writing for his own time, not future generations. He was trying to explain to the nation of Israel why they suffered and why they should yet have hope. Here's why that interpretation is correct: 1) There is no use of the word “messiah” in the passage at all. Moreover, the Jewish idea of a messiah was not someone who suffered, but rather a mighty leader. Therefore it is clear that the “servant” who has suffered is not meant to be any type of messiah. 2) The servant is crushed, the opposite of stretched or crucified, which is what happened to Jesus. 3) Most fundamentally, the author specifically identifies the “servant” as the nation of Israel in 41:8 and 49:3. The sufferings of the servant are said to be in the past, not in the future. This is consistent with the timing of the writing, i.e. after the destruction of the nation of Israel has occurred and the captivity is underway. The suffering of Jesus, by contrast, occurs in the future.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
answer: try again. As pointed out - the Parasha are TORAH readings, not all of the Tanakh. Why aren't you complaining that Daniel or Ruth isn't included in the Parasha readings?
Isaiah 53 is about Israel, her people and prophets.
Isaiah 53:10 − The Hebrew Tanakh says “And the Lord wished to crush him, He made him ill; if his soul makes itself restitution (acknowledge guilt) he shall see children, he shall prolong his days and God’s purpose shall prosper in his hand.” But the KJV says:: “Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he had put him to grief: when thou shall make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand”
There are very specific prophecies for the Jewish Messiah
* The Sanhedrin will be re-established (Isaiah 1:26)
* Once he is King, leaders of other nations will look to him for guidance. (Isaiah 2:4)
* The whole world will worship the One God of Israel (Isaiah 2:17)
* He will be descended from King David (Isaiah 11:1) via King Solomon (1 Chron. 22:8-10)
* The Moshiach will be a man of this world, an observant Jew with "fear of God" (Isaiah 11:2)
*****In other words - this must all be accomplished in a human lifetime*****
* Evil and tyranny will not be able to stand before his leadership (Isaiah 11:4)
* Knowledge of God will fill the world (Isaiah 11:9)
* He will include and attract people from all cultures and nations (Isaiah 11:10)
* All Israelites will be returned to their homeland (Isaiah 11:12)
* Death will be swallowed up forever (Isaiah 25:8)
* There will be no more hunger or illness, and death will cease (Isaiah 25:8)
* All of the dead will rise again (Isaiah 26:19)
* The Jewish people will experience eternal joy and gladness (Isaiah 51:11)
* He will be a messenger of peace (Isaiah 52:7)
* Nations will end up recognizing the wrongs they did to Israel (Isaiah 52:13-53:5)
* The peoples of the world will turn to the Jews for spiritual guidance (Zechariah 8:23)
* The ruined cities of Israel will be restored (Ezekiel 16:55)
* Weapons of war will be destroyed (Ezekiel 39:9)
* The Temple will be rebuilt (Ezekiel 40) resuming many of the suspended mitzvot
* He will then perfect the entire world to serve God together (Zephaniah 3:9)
* Jews will know the Torah without Study (Jeremiah 31:33)
* He will give you all the desires of your heart (Psalms 37:4)
* He will take the barren land and make it abundant and fruitful (Isaiah 51:3, Amos 9:13-15, Ezekiel 36:29-30, Isaiah 11:6-9).
Thanks to Mark S and Plushy Bear
The well-worn claim frequently advanced by Christian apologists which argues that the noted Jewish commentator Rashi (1040 CE - 1105) was the first to identify the suffering servant of Isaiah 53 with the nation of Israel is inaccurate and misleading. In fact, Origen, a prominent and influential church father, conceded in the year 248 CE -- many centuries before Rashi was born -- that the consensus among the Jews in his time was that Isaiah 53 “bore reference to the whole [Jewish] people, regarded as one individual, and as being in a state of dispersion and suffering, in order that many proselytes might be gained, on account of the dispersion of the Jews among numerous heathen nations.”
The broad consensus among Jewish, and even some Christian commentators, that the “servant” in Isaiah 52-53 refers to the nation of Israel is understandable. Isaiah 53, which is the fourth of four renowned Servant Songs, is umbilically connected to its preceding chapters. The “servant” in each of the three previous Servant Songs is plainly and repeatedly identified as the nation of Israel.Source(s): Origen, Contra Celsum, Chadwick, Henry; Cambridge Press, book 1, chapter 55, page 50
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- ZviLv 61 decade ago
Parsha is only the 5 books of Moses (the Torah).
As for the Haftorah, they only cover about 5% of the books of the prophets and ketuvim. At the time that the Rabbis instituted Haftorahs, no one was claiming that Isaiah 53 was anything OTHER than meaning Israel, which is very obvious if you read it in its original (old) Hebrew. They felt no need to put it in.
- Anonymous1 decade ago
Parasha refer only to the Torah. Isaiah is not in the Torah.
Not all portions of all the Prophets or Writings are included in the Haftara.
If you read it in the original Hebrew, or even a proper translation (Hint: if it's in a Christian Bible, it's not a proper translation), and read it in context with Isaiah 52, you will see it CANNOT refer to a single person.
Given your obvious lack of understanding, I find your attempt to assert conspiracy entirely disingenuous.
- ChallahGirlLv 41 decade ago
Where is the messianic prophecy that says the messiah will come TWICE? Are you trying to cover that up?
- sego lilyLv 71 decade ago
It is confirmed in Matt 8:16,17 and 1 Peter 2:24, but they don't accept the New Testament either