Thinking Isaiah fifty three refers to Jesus is a usual mistake. Chapters forty-fifty five of Isaiah had been written via 2d Isaiah i.E. After southern kingdom was once destroyed in 586 BCE and the surviving Israelites had been taken into captivity. Like all of the prophets, he was once writing for his possess time, no longer future generations. He was once attempting to explain to the nation of Israel why they suffered and why they should but have hope. Here is why that interpretation is correct: 1) there is not any use of the word “messiah” within the passage in any respect. Additionally, the Jewish proposal of a messiah was once now not someone who suffered, but as an alternative a mighty chief. As a result it is clear that the “servant” who has suffered just isn't supposed to be any form of messiah. 2) The servant is crushed, the reverse of stretched or crucified, which is what occurred to Jesus. Three) Most essentially, the writer above all identifies the “servant” because the nation of Israel in 41:8 and forty nine:3. The sufferings of the servant are mentioned to be up to now, now not sooner or later. This is regular with the timing of the writing, i.E. After the destruction of the nation of Israel has passed off and the captivity is underway. The suffering of Jesus, in contrast, happens in the future.