God Called Ezekiel Son of Man Almost 100 Times. What's the Connection to Jesus Who Called Himself "Son of Man"?

25 Answers

  • 5 months ago
    Best answer

    Basically, the phrase “Son of Man” means something different in the book of Ezekiel than it does in the gospels.

    In Ezekiel, “son of man” means “human being.” It’s a poetic Hebrew expression that’s used with that same meaning in several other places in the Old Testament, for example, in Psalm 8, where the ESV translates the Hebrew terms literally: “What is man that you are mindful of him, and the son of man that you care for him?”

    In the gospels, “Son of Man” means something different. It’s an allusion to the Old Testament, though not to the book of Ezekiel, but rather to the book of Daniel. The Jewish people took the phrase “son of man” from this vision and used it as a title (“Son of Man”) to describe the divine savior figure they were expecting. Jesus often applied this title to himself, both to show that he was the Savior sent from God, and also, paradoxically, to show that he had given up his divine prerogatives and come to earth humbly, in human form, to identify completely with those he came to save.

    So Ezekiel is not really being given a title that properly belongs to Jesus alone. Rather, the poetic phrase that meant simply “human being” in Ezekiel’s time had become a Messianic title by the time of Jesus.

  • Paul
    Lv 6
    5 months ago

    Both Ezekiel and Jesus were each born of a human mother. However, Ezekiel didn't claim to be God, or demonstrate that he was God by constantly doing things only God could do.

    • TeeM
      Lv 7
      5 months agoReport

      Neither did Jesus;

      Jesus denies being equal to God

      Jesus denies he is God.

  • TeeM
    Lv 7
    5 months ago

    Both to Ezekiel and to Jesus, it denotes humility and station.

    In Ezekiel case it was to remind him, he was still a man, even though he was being used by Jehovah to declare his word.

    In the case of Jesus, Jesus humbled himself and became a man, equal to Adam.

    For through the death of one man [Adam], death spread to all mankind.

    Through the death of the one man [Jesus], mankind was bought back from sin and death to life.

    (Romans 5:17) “17 For if by the trespass of the one man death ruled as king through that one, how much more will those who receive the abundance of the undeserved kindness and of the free gift of righteousness rule as kings in life through the one person, Jesus Christ!”

    (Philippians 2:8) “8 More than that, when he came as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to the point of death, yes, death on a torture stake.”

    Let us like Paul:

    (Ephesians 1:3) “3 Praised be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, for he has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in union with Christ,”


    John, Juan, Sean, Shawn are all the SAME name and are not different names.

    Other language forms for the name John:

    Can (Turkish)


    Dzon, Džon (Congolese, Serbian)

    Ean (Manx)

    Eoin (Irish)

    Evan (Welsh)

    Ewan (Scottish)

    Giăng (Vietnamese, Protestant)

    Youhanna (Persian)

    Jehovah is the English pronunciation of the Hebrew YHWH.

    Yahweh is also an accepted pronunciation of the Hebrew YHWH.

    They are NOT 2 different names, but the one name in Hebrew spelled YHWH.

    Thus Jehovah and Yahweh are not two different names, but 2 forms of the same name.

    Just as Jesus or Es-sa or Yeshua or Joshua or Chesús are not 'different names' for Jesus.

    They are how you pronounce this name, the same name in the many languages of the earth.


  • BMCR
    Lv 7
    5 months ago

    From a Jewish point of view, there is no connection.

  • What do you think of the answers? You can sign in to give your opinion on the answer.
  • 5 months ago

    God first calls Ezekiel 'Son of man' in chapter 2 verse 1, the first of 93 times in that prophetic book. God had just given Ezekiel a spectacular vision of a phenomenal windstorm approaching (perhaps an immense shelf-cloud with fire and lightning in it?) Living Creatures with the form of men but with four faces (only one being that of a man) were winged and moved on wheels within wheels. The one on the throne above all this spoke to Ezekiel, clearly reminding him of his lowly, physical status as a human, by that title. Yet he was a privileged, chosen human, being sent to represent the Almighty.

    The glory of God - long associated with the temple in Jerusalem - was on the move, appearing to His people exiled in Babylon, with the promise of restored glory to Jerusalem. Psalm 8 speaks of humans as being a little less than the heavenly creatures; Daniel 7:13 & 8:17 speaks of another Son of Man who would gloriously do restoration work on Earth as a heavenly figure. When Jesus took this title and applied it to Himself (81 times in the Gospels), it was a clear link to the Messiah expected by God's people. Nobody else took that title but Jesus (e.g. Mark 8:31).

    Because Jesus had been born of a woman, He was clearly fully human - though Gnostics later denied that and the NT warns Christians of the heresy of the Gnostics. But, much more than that, the title also incorporates the Messianic prophecies of the heavenly figure in Daniel, the Son of Man, "coming with the clouds of heaven" - see Revelation 1:7 & 13. Jesus is the unique, only Son of God, who also has the title Son of Man to show both His human and His divine nature That is the connection.

    • TeeM
      Lv 7
      5 months agoReport

      I noticed you left out Rev 1:1, 5, 6, makes you wonder why.

      Who is the God and Father of our Lord Jesus? (Rev 3:2)

      True Jesus has a divine nature, but that doesn't make him equal to his God.

  • Otto
    Lv 7
    5 months ago

    Study the Bible and find the answer !

    Source(s): Bible
  • 5 months ago

    Why is Ezekiel repeatedly referred to as “son of man”?

    Jehovah addresses Ezekiel in this way to remind the prophet that his makeup is that of flesh and blood, thus heightening the great contrast between the human messenger and the divine Originator of the message.

    The same designation is applied to Jesus Christ about 80 times in the Gospels, clearly showing that the Son of God had come as a human, not as an incarnation.

  • Anonymous
    5 months ago

    atheist trolling *************************** ***************************

    • Hannah J Paul
      Lv 7
      5 months agoReport

      "Atheist trolling" with all the lovely asterisks is his answer to virtually every R&S question. Probably just a way to garner points.

  • Anonymous
    5 months ago

    The ancient Hebrew language only had 8500 words.

    One word would do triple or quadruple duty. Therefore context is always king.

    The word used here that is translated as son of man, describes a human being.

    God became a son of man so that sons of men could have a chance to become sons of God.

    God, who has chosen to exist as three persons, entered into His creation, becoming one of His creatures, to take Adam's place in death, so that Adam (and all who were in the body of Adam) could be raised to life: once the price for sin was paid in full.

  • yesmar
    Lv 7
    5 months ago

    "Son of Man" was a title, not a name. So was Lucifer, or the "Bright and morning star", which is a title of Jesus' now also.

    Rev 22:16

    16 "I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this message for the churches. I am both the source of David and the heir to his throne. I am the bright morning star."

    Source(s): Jesus follower
Still have questions? Get answers by asking now.