Which gender is more likely to receive disapproval for citing dissatisfaction in their partner's sexual performance as reason for divorce?
- FoofaLv 71 month ago
I'd disapprove of both of them. Unless you were an idiot you knew what you were getting so you don't get to ***** about it later. This is why it's important to establish sexual chemistry before you trot off down the aisle.
- okiknowitLv 71 month ago
Impotence and refusal to have sex are still grounds for divorce in many states. No-fault divorce is more common since it doesn't require proof.
- AleshaLv 71 month ago
In most cases a woman has made the decision to give up on getting a wild passionate lover for other things that are more important to her. Stability, companionship, a house in the suburbs, family and children. So what you're referring to simply doesn't happen, at last not for those reasons.