Anonymous asked in Social ScienceGender Studies · 1 month ago

Which gender is more likely to receive disapproval for citing dissatisfaction in their partner's sexual performance as reason for divorce?

3 Answers

  • Foofa
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    I'd disapprove of both of them. Unless you were an idiot you knew what you were getting so you don't get to ***** about it later. This is why it's important to establish sexual chemistry before you trot off down the aisle. 

  • 1 month ago

    Impotence and refusal to have sex are still grounds for divorce in many states.  No-fault divorce is more common since it doesn't require proof.

  • Alesha
    Lv 7
    1 month ago

    In most cases a woman has made the decision to give up on getting a wild passionate lover for other things that are more important to her. Stability, companionship, a house in the suburbs, family and children. So what you're referring to simply doesn't happen, at last not for those reasons.

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