Hiko asked in Science & MathematicsPhysics · 3 months ago

inertial reference frames?

If only a single nonzero force acts on an object, does the object accelerate relative to all inertial reference frames?

Is it possible for such an object to have zero velocity in some inertial reference frame and not in another? If so, give a specific example.

1 Answer

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  • 3 months ago

    If an object accelerates in one frame, it accelerates in all internal frames.

    An object sure can have zero velocity in one frame but not in another. 

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